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needing help with short answer question: 50-100 words (reading excerpts provided)

Why was Japan less successful than China in establishing orthodox Neo-Confucianism

reading excerpts: 

 

On the popular level
Buddhism and Shinto were far more deeply engrained;
Consider the dicta of Tsuda Sokichi: that Japanese
culture was "completely different from Chinese culture"; that the
impact of Chinese culture on Japanese intellectuals was "far removed
from the actual life of the Japanese and had no direct effect on actual
life";
Finally, Neo-Confucianism in Japan constituted the orthodox
position in little more than name. In China the examination system
ensured that the orthodox philosophy was the common heritage of
all educated men. But Japan had no such system. Nor did Japan
have a centralized government to support the claims of its favored
teaching.19' Heterodox teachings arose almost simultaneously with
the Neo-Confucian orthodoxy; and most found ready backing
somewhere in Japan. Even Sorai himself found employment as an
advisor to two shoguns. For all these reasons, Sorai's attack on the
Neo-Confucian orthodoxy was far less earth-shaking than the
Humanist assault on the Scholastics.
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